Social Studies and Pedagogy mcq

Quiz-3: Social Studies and Pedagogy MCQ Question with Answer

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Social Studies and Pedagogy MCQ Questions with Answer

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Q31. Which of the following is enforceable in a court of law?

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Fundamental Duties

(c) Directive Principles

(d) Preamble

 

Answer: (a) Fundamental Right

Explanation: Fundamental Rights are enforceable in the court of law. An aggrieved person can directly approach the court in case of encroachment or violation of it.

Q32. The division of the period of Indian History into ‘Ancient’, ‘Medieval’, and ‘Modern’ also has problems. Which of the following is one of the problems in it?

(a) Tripartite division reflects the gradual growth of the Indian State

(b) Three periods are insufficient to describe Indian History

(c) The concept has been borrowed from the West where the Modern period was associated with science reason, democracy, liberty, and equality

(d) Indian History seems to have clear lines of distinction between ‘Ancient’ and ‘Medieval’ and ‘Medieval’ and ‘Modern’ period

 

Answer: (c) The concept has been borrowed from the West where the Modern period was associated with science reason, democracy, liberty, and equality

Explanation: The concept is borrowed from the West. The modern period was associated with the growth of all the forces of modernity i.e. science, reason, democracy, liberty, and equality. Under British rule, people in India did not have equality, freedom, or liberty. Nor was the period one of economic growth and progress.

Q33. The Reform Movement among the Muslims started by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan is known as

(a) Sufi

(b) Khilafat

(c) Wahabi

(d) Aligarh

 

Answer: (d) Aligarh

Explanation: The Reform Movement started by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan is popularly also known as the Aligarh Movement of which Aligarh was the center.

Q34. Indian National Congress found wide acceptance initially among

(a) peasants and working class

(b) Landlords

(c) Educated middle class

(d) Businessmen

 

Answer: (c) educated middle class

Explanation: Initially, Indian National Congress was termed as the organization of the educated middle class. It was not an organization of mass. Its membership was confined only to the educated class in the beginning. With the entry of Gandhi, it started becoming a movement of mass.

Q35. Who among the following was called as ‘Father of Indian Renaissance?

(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(d) Swami Vivekananda

 

Answer: (c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Explanation: Raja Ram Mohan Roy was called the ‘Father of Indian Renaissance’ because of his great advocacy for modern and scientific education in the early period of British Rule.

Q36. Which of the following personalities fought for and got widow remarriage legalized?

(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(c) Swami Vivekananda

(d) Dayanand Saraswati

 

Answer: (b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Explanation: Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar fought for widow remarriage and got the ‘Widows Remarriage Act’, 1856 passed by the British Government.

Q37. Who started the movement for a separate Andhra State to protect the interests of the Telegu Speakers?

(a) Ramanujam

(b) C Chandrasekhar Rao

(c) Potti Sriramlu

(d) None of these

 

Answer: (c) Potti Sriramlu

Explanation: In 1952, a Veteran Gandhian leader Potti Sriramlu went on a hunger strike demanding the formation of a separate Andhra state, which attracted huge support.

Q38. The East India Company used the Diwani revenue from Bengal primarily in

(a) constructing bridges and roads

(b) building schools, colleges, and universities

(c) purchasing cotton and silk textiles in India

(d) amassing stocks of gold and silver to replenish the dwindling stocks in Britain

 

Answer: (c) purchasing cotton and silk textiles in India

Explanation: The Diwani revenues were used primarily to purchase cotton and silk textiles in India. It was also used for maintaining company troops, to meet the cost of building the company fort and offices at Calcutta.

Q39. Which of the first Sub-Saharan African countries to gain independence?

(a) Liberia

(b) Ghana

(c) Senegal

(d) Sierra Leone

 

Answer: (b) Ghana

Explanation: Ghana also known as the Gold Coast, became the first Sub-Saharan African nation to declare independence from European colonization in 1957.

Q40. District Judges in a state are appointed by the

(a) Governor

(b) Chief Justice of the High Court

(c) Council of Ministers of the State

(d) Advocate General of the State

 

Answer: (a) Governor

Explanation: District Judges in the state are appointed by the Governor.

Q41. Bidri was

(a) a type of cotton textile produced in Bidar

(b) a type of copperware produced in Bidar

(c) inlay work in copper and silver done by the artisans of Bidar

(d) a type of silk textile produced in Bidar

 

Answer: (c) inlay work in copper and silver has been done by the artisans of Bidar

Explanation: Bidri or Bidri ware is a metal handicraft from Bidar, developed in the 14th century during the rule of the Bahamani Sultans. Due to its distinct inlay artwork, Bidri ware is an export handicraft of India. It is usually made up of a blackened alloy of zinc and copper with thin sheets of pure silver.

Q42. Population density is the number of people living in a unit area of Earth’s surface. It is normally expressed as

(a) per square km

(b) per thousand

(c) per square metre

(d) None of the above

 

Answer: (a) per square km

Explanation: Population density is a measurement of population per unit or unit volume. The population density of India is 364 per square km as per the 2011 census.

Q43. Which of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?

(a) Aluminium

(b) Cement

(c) Jute

(d) Steel

 

Answer: (a) Aluminium

Explanation: Aluminium is the most plentiful metal in the Earth’s crust. It is found in the form of aluminium oxide in an ore called bauxite which is used for aluminium.

Q44. Which of the following ports are the deepest land-locked and well-protected ports along the East Coast?

(a) Chennai

(b) Tuticorin

(c) Paradeep

(d) Visakhapatnam

 

Answer: (d) Visakhapatnam

Explanation: Visakhapatnam port is one of the 13 major ports in India and the only major port of Andhra Pradesh. It is India’s second-largest port by volume of cargo handled.

Q45. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

(a) Election Commission

(b) Union Public Service Commission

(c) National Advisory Council

(d) Inter-State Council

 

Answer: (c) National Advisory Council

Explanation: The National Advisory Council was an advisory body set up by the first (UPA) government to advise the Prime Minister.

Q46. While discussing gender roles in the classroom, you would assert that

(a) there are different professions for men and women

(b) boys need to attend school as they are the future earning members of the family

(c) gender stereotypes in society need to be addressed meaningfully

(d) household work should not be seen as productive

 

Answer: (c) gender stereotypes in society need to be addressed meaningfully

Explanation: During classroom discussions on gender, teachers must advocate that gender stereotypes in society need to be put to an end.

Q47. Most people during the 19th century felt education would have a ‘corrupting influence’ on women. Which of the following brings out the contextual meaning of ‘corrupting’ in the above sentence?

(a) Women were more corrupt than men

(b) It would bring them more money

(c) The power they gain through education would take them away from their traditional roles

(d) They would become impure

 

Answer: (c) The power they gain through education would take them away from their traditional roles

Explanation: The term ‘Corrupting influence’ in the context of women’s education in the 19th century refers to the popular perception of Indians that women’s education would lead to the empowerment of women, who will not perform their traditional role of house maker, wife, etc.

Q48. Which of the following questions would help build the critical thinking skills of students?

(a) ‘All communicable diseases are water-borne’ state whether true or false

(b) Comment on the ‘double burden of women’s work’

(c) Write two measures the government has adopted to control pollution

(d) What is the government’s role in Indian health and Indian education?

 

Answer: (b) Comment on the ‘double burden of women’s work’

Explanation: The question to comment on the ‘double burden of women’s work will help in developing critical thinking as students will have to ponder different aspects of the question.

Q49. You are teaching ‘Unity in Diversity’ to the students of class VIII. Which of the following activities would you do to make the students understand the concept effectively?

(a) Write an essay on the river disputes between the states of India

(b) Prepare a model of the Hydro-electric project

(c) Conduct a test after the lesson is thoroughly taught

(d) Present a feature on the different dance forms of our country appreciating their underlying similarities and differences

 

Answer: (d) Present a feature on the different dance forms of our country appreciating their underlying similarities and differences

Explanation: Discussion on a different form of dances will be an effective way of teaching ‘Unity in Diversity in the classroom.

Q50. Choose the most inappropriate statement regarding teaching Social Science in middle school.

(a) It should be taught as it helps to acquire an understanding of human relationships

(b) It should be taught because it helps students debate and reflect a social issues

(c) It should be taught as it helps sensitize children regarding the social reality

(d) It should be part of the curriculum so that the learners know about the lives of kings and the battles they fought

 

Answer: (d) It should be part of the curriculum so that the learners know about the lives of kings and the battles they fought

Explanation: The teaching of social science aims at developing an understanding of society human relationships and real-life experiences, not telling about the life of kings and their battle.

Q51. Which of the following is not a product of learning?

(a) Skill

(b) Knowledge

(c) Maturation

(d) Physical Structure

 

Answer: (c) Maturation

Explanation: Maturation is the process of becoming mature; the emergence of individual and behavioral characteristics through the growth processes of our time.

Q52. History textbooks have a box ‘Elsewhere’ at the end of each chapter

(a) to attract the attention of students

(b) to make the chapter interesting to students

(c) to increase the general knowledge of the students

(d) to relate contemporary developments around the world with each other

 

Answer: (d) to relate contemporary developments around the world with each other

Explanation: A box ‘Elsewhere’ at the end of each chapter of the history textbook is given to enable students to relate contemporary developments around the globe with each other.

Q53. In History textbooks, many sources have been given in each chapter

(a) to prove the Creative talent of the authors

(b) to prove that more than one source is always better

(c) to justify the selection of the topic

(d) to encourage students to work on sources and derive interpretations

 

Answer: (d) to encourage students to work on sources and derive interpretations

Explanation: The many sources have been introduced and discussed in the History textbook so that students can have an understanding of these and make varied interpretations of the same incident.

Q54. Child-centred pedagogy is

(a) to teach children in small care centers to ensure individual

(b) the teacher explains the concept by standing

(c) the teacher explains the concept by standing in the center with children encircling her

(d) giving primacy to children’s experiences, their voices, and their active participation

 

Answer: (d) giving primacy to children’s experiences, their voices, and their active participation

Explanation: Child-centred pedagogy gives paramount concern to children’s concerns, experiences, their voices, and their involvement in learning.

Q55. Which quality of the teacher is liked the most by the students?

(a) Punctuality

(b) Impartiality

(c) Love for discipline

(d) Dominance

 

Answer: (b) Impartiality

Explanation: The quality of being impartial on the part of the teacher on different issues and concerns is appreciated greatly by the students. Bias or prejudice is condemned and disliked by them.

Q56. Poetry increases a student’s ……… to beauty.

(a) Interest

(b) Behaviour

(c) Awareness

(d) Sensitiveness

 

Answer: (d) Sensitiveness

Explanation: Poetry increases students’ sensitivity towards beauty.

Q57. The teaching of English in India is facing the main problem of

(a) use of the traditional and old method

(b) Ignorance of parents

(c) Lack of good books

(d) All of the above

 

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation: English teaching in India is suffering because of outdated methods, unavailability of good literature and textbooks ignorance, and lack of encouragement on the part of parents.

Q58. Language of the word is not necessary for

(a) Imaginative thinking

(b) Conceptual thinking

(c) Associative thinking

(d) Perceptual thinking

 

Answer: (a) imaginative thinking

Explanation: Imaginative thinking is a cognitive ability that includes a high thinking level.

Q59. Learner-centered social studies teaching does not focus on

(a) Enquiry

(b) Questioning

(c) Discussion

(d) Memorising

 

Answer: (d) Memorising

Explanation: Learner-centred social studies does not stress memorizing facts and concepts.

Q60. A classroom in which children participate in a wide range of challenging activities with teachers and peers, with whom they jointly construct understanding is known as

(a) Constructive classroom

(b) Advanced classroom

(c) Social constructive classroom

(d) Traditional classroom

 

Answer: (c) social constructive classroom

Explanation: A socially constructive classroom is a classroom in which children participate in a wide range of challenging activities with teachers and peers. It is grounded in Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory.

 

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